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Submitted by Rob Yates on

Looking at specifically at the issue of purchasing health services: can you provide any evidence that "giving cash to poor people to purchase goods in the market has a better chance of public resources' going to those for whom they were intended"?

Sure poor people may temporarily end-up with additional cash but are you suggesting that individual private purchasing of health services is more efficient and equitable than public purchasing of services? I thought that since Arrow highlighted the massive market failures in health (due to huge information asymmetries) that the consensus was that the state should be heavily involved in purchasing healthcare services. This certainly was the view of the recent Lancet Commission investing in health: