" Furthermore, the social coordination norm theory predicts that rates of FGC at the community level should be either very close to zero or very close to one."
I wish the author would include the source(s) for such a claim.
The early post WWII period included strong social norm pressure to avoid homosexuality. Yet Kinsey found "37% of males and 13% of females had at least some overt homosexual experience to orgasm..." (http://www.indiana.edu/~kinsey/resources/bib-homoprev.html). When we consider the criminal, economic, and social repercussions in that era when homosexual behavior was exposed (arrest, loss of employment, general social ostracizing) we have a good example that contradicts the argument about behavior being very close to either zero or one. Since the author's entire justification for a modified approach to discouraging genital mutilation is built on this unsupported statement about "social coordination norm" theory, I would contend a critique of the prevailing theory deserves a more nuanced analysis than that provided in the essay.