I also want to clarify the meaning of unbiasedness in Neyman's and Freedman's randomization inference framework. Here, an unbiased estimator is one that gets the right answer on average, over all possible randomizations. From this unconditional or ex ante perspective, the unadjusted difference in means is unbiased. But ex post, you're stuck with the randomization that actually occurred. Going back to our hypothetical education experiment, suppose the treatment group had a significantly higher average baseline (9th-grade) reading score than the control group. (Let's say the difference is both substantively and statistically significant.) Knowing what we know about the baseline difference, can we credibly attribute all of the unadjusted difference in mean outcomes (10th-grade reading scores) to the treatment? If your statistical consultant says, "That's OK, the difference in means is unbiased over all possible randomizations," you might find that a bit Panglossian.